Question

Status:Closed    Asked:Oct 21, 2013 - 09:38 AM

I wonder how to interpret an observation with a value of 0 for PERWT or HHWT.

Using for instance the 1990 5% Census, I have come across observations with a 0 value for PERWT. This means that these observations are merely dropped from weighted regressions. I therefore wonder there is an interpretation to this, or whether it's a mistake.

 
Do you have the same question? Follow this Question
 

Voted Best Answer

In 1990-2000, PERWT values of 0 were a function of the complex sample design used by the Census Bureau. These weights were generated by the Census Bureau so IPUMS cannot offically speak to how they were created. I believe these 0 weights were used to account for oversampling, but if you would like more official information you can contact the Census Bureau.

 

Oct 21, 2013 - 01:21 PM

1
0
Report it

OTHER QUESTIONS NEEDING ANSWERS

when trying to declare the IPUMS data as panel on stata there are repeated ti...
2010 5-year PUMA definition
Where can I find city populations, by age, San Diego, New Orleans, Atlanta, C...
Hi, it has been over 4 hours for my data extract and I was wondering if there...
When I take several Nov Supplements, the weighted number of voters equals pub...
Are there aggregate categories for OCC/OCCLY in CPS?
Login   |   Register

Recently Active Members

View More »

Share |